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Ask the lawyers: Miles and Mileage Programs

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Old Oct 23, 2007, 2:01 am
  #76  
 
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Originally Posted by dhuey
What is that? It looks to be part of 104 H.R. 3111, which never passed the House in 1996. See http://thomas.loc.gov/cgi-bin/bdquer...4:HR03111:@@@X

The current 26 U.S.C., Section 137 has nothing to do with frequent flyer miles. See http://uscode.house.gov/search/criteria.shtml
You're right. Didn't scroll down enough on accountant city.

Cheers.
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Old Oct 23, 2007, 10:22 am
  #77  
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Originally Posted by party_boy
...There have been precedents where the employer asks you to use your miles for a business trip and they'll "purchase" miles from you. It doesn't matter weather you got the miles from personal or business, the IRS treats the mileage as a "rebate" with a 0 cost basis. You will be required to pay regular income tax on the amount of the "Sale" (i.e. FMV) and report that as income. You cannot deduct the cost of the miles as the basis is 0. You cannot argue that the basis is NOT 0 unless you purchased directly (i.e. via airline), as the policy is shown by the IRS charging income tax on the full amount on the sale. The company can then deduct the purchased amount as a business expense....
In bold is where we disagree, and I don't think there are any precedents that support your view on the conversion to business use of personal miles, earned on tickets for personal travel. I agree with you on the zero basis for miles earned on business travel.
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Old Oct 23, 2007, 10:34 am
  #78  
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Originally Posted by party_boy
FYI.
************************
Section 137 Frequent Flyer Mileage and Awards. (a) In General - If an individual receives a frequent flyer benefit as a result of the purchase in a trade or business of property or services.
We're discussing deductibility when the benefit was the result of a personal, not trade or business, purchase.
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Old Oct 23, 2007, 10:36 am
  #79  
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Originally Posted by party_boy
Will you say that one airline mile on NW is the same as one mile on NW? Yes?
No. Identical things can have different bases.

Would you say that one share of Microsoft stock is the same as one share of Microsoft stock? But if I sell the first one, I owe $20 in income tax; if I sell the second one, I owe $0 in income tax.
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Old Oct 23, 2007, 12:02 pm
  #80  
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Originally Posted by sethb
No. Identical things can have different bases.
...
Indeed, they usually do. Even where a manufacturer establishes a uniform retail price, there are still differences in sales taxes and delivery charges. The fact that the basis can be different for identical miles has no relevance in this discussion.
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Old Oct 26, 2007, 8:09 pm
  #81  
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When is the conference and when will we hear anything??
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Old Oct 27, 2007, 2:02 pm
  #82  
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Originally Posted by mikey1003
When is the conference and when will we hear anything??
now that WE have created all the topics here in this thread while thinking there really was to be one, they'll think about setting one up some time.
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Old Oct 31, 2007, 9:46 am
  #83  
 
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Cool

Maybe this was fly fishing by ATA's legal?
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Old Oct 31, 2007, 11:15 am
  #84  
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Originally Posted by NorthernAtlanticRacer
OK everybody, we had the session, we had your questions as of Wednesday 12am Singapore time, and I just need a quiet moment to post some answers. I will try to do sa asap
Still waiting...
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Old Nov 13, 2007, 7:25 pm
  #85  
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Sorry for the delay...

Sorry, I had a slight timing problem...I will try to give an overview here and post a more detailed analysis later on today. Generally, we have noticed a difference of opinion (now, thats no surprise, since lawyers were debating) amongst the legal systems. At the extreme end was our panelist from Hong Kong, who felt that in HK, the airlines essentially could do whatever they pleased to do. At the other end, the European panelists felt that the terms and conditions would be subject to the European Unfair Terms and Conditions Directive, thus posing some "border". What remained an issue were "bought" miles: while all panelists agreed that the airline could devaluate miles, and even forfeit them ( I was the only one disagreeing, so you may not want to follow me on this one), they felt that if a customer had spent actual money for the miles, he had more rights.

One panelist reported of taking a British carrier - one that is not part of *alliance - to court for not making flights available. The carrier fought to have the matter removed from small claims, thus exposing our dear panelist to full cost risk - easily a high 4 to low 5 figure Pound amount - so he had to withdraw. BUT, this shows clearly, that carriers are well aware of the risks and do not want to risk a judgement.

As to the issue of ownership in employment relationships, all agreed that there is a primacy of the contract: if the contract stipulates that the miles are accrued for business usage, then this must be adhered to. Most also agreed that even in absence of such contractual rules, the economic benefit of the miles should rest with the person paying - if he can use them. Thus, if the T&C's stipulate that only the person holding the account may redeem miles, then the miles are his. However, he may be asked to use the miles for business related travel.

Now, I need to check in now and will be back in a few minutes.
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Old Nov 13, 2007, 7:33 pm
  #86  
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Thanks for getting back to us!!!

Here's a related question I thought of recently: What protection does a corporate purchase of miles have? Amex bought billions of miles from Delta at the time of Delta's bankruptcy. Does Amex have a claim against Delta for devaluing those miles, for example by imposing capacity controls on its formerly unrestricted double mileage awards?
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Old Nov 30, 2007, 2:41 pm
  #87  
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Originally Posted by NorthernAtlanticRacer
...If you have questions, please post them here, and I will try to have them answered - and post the answers, of course....
Did you have a chance to consider the use of personal miles for business expenses under USA tax law, or was that too narrow of a question for your international conference?
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Old Dec 1, 2007, 10:36 am
  #88  
 
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Originally Posted by NorthernAtlanticRacer
. . . while all panelists agreed that the airline could devaluate miles, and even forfeit them ( I was the only one disagreeing, so you may not want to follow me on this one), they felt that if a customer had spent actual money for the miles, he had more rights.
Hmmm. Might this be due (at least in part) to the difference in the way civil law and common law look at contracts? I refer, of course, to the differences between "causa" and what we common-law folks call "consideration"?

I would think in common law whether the consideration was in cash or in action (flying the particular carrier) would make little difference, except in computing the measure of damages for breach (presuming breach was found).
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