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Through check-in when next flight is not a Star Alliance flight

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Through check-in when next flight is not a Star Alliance flight

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Old Jun 3, 2003, 1:13 am
  #1  
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Through check-in when next flight is not a Star Alliance flight

It seems that Air Canada can now also check-in for ongoing connecting flights on another carrier even if it's not a Star Alliance flight. Good for some, headache for others.

I was on a YVR-LAX-SAN flight last week. LAX-SAN was on AA. When AC in YVR produced a boarding pass for the AA flight, I was very surprised. It even had the seat number and frequent flyer number printed on the boarding pass. It was a BA number which the AA flight was to be credited to.

Anyway, AA at LAX didn't blink when they saw the AC boarding pass. Except that they took the bigger part of the boarding pass with all the relevant information on it.. ie name, destinations from/to, FREQUENT FLYER number. The smaller bit as all of you know only shows your last name, seat number and destination. It does not show flight number, or Airline, or Frequent Flyer information.

It's coming to a week, and normally AA credits BA accounts within 3 days max. But in this scenario... who is responsible in sending the relevant FF information? AC to AA to BA or AC to BA directly?

Even if I send in 'documentation', BA Executive Club is going to be looking at the little stub of the boarding pass and say "WHAT? You've already flown on Air Canada and we're not a partner with them..."

Seemless travel? Or nightmare for Frequent Flyers?
Guy Betsy is offline  
Old Jun 3, 2003, 2:33 am
  #2  
 
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Most airlines can issue boarding passes for ongoing connecting flights if they have interline agreements (alliance or not). It's nothing new really.

As for sending relevant FF information, it would be AA to BA directly. AC is not really involved. It's just that their boarding pass stock was used to issue the AA boarding pass.
keithguy is offline  
Old Jun 3, 2003, 5:02 am
  #3  
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In those situations I usually ask the second airline to issue the boarding pass on their stock.It seems to make a difference.
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Old Jun 3, 2003, 5:07 am
  #4  
 
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I thought it was a matter of course at US stations to reissue interline BPs. Then again I am usually in situtations where intra-US flights meet int'l ones, so maybe the idea behind the check has less to do with computer compatibility and more with checking up on the prior stations' travel document screening.
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Old Jun 3, 2003, 8:45 am
  #5  
 
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I asked this a few weeks back and either missed the answer or didn't get one...

How exactly does interlining work?

AC has successfully interlined me in the past on Delta to go YYZ -> MIA -> somewhere in FL

And yet they cannot sell me a UA ticket and do same unless it is codeshare?

Simon
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Old Jun 3, 2003, 8:57 am
  #6  
 
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Interlining and codesharing are different things. Interline agreements mean that airlines can check in pax and bags on other airlines flights at the point of origin, resulting in less work for the pax. Basically all IATA members extend this privilege to other IATA members, with some exceptions. It has less to do with revenue than operational convenience.

Was the AC/DL interline journey a joint ticket or two seperate tickets? I think AC would only issue a joint ticket if the final destination was one not served by *A, as I think it is unlikely that the entire journey could be ticketed under one fare basis/bucket.

I would think AC would not issue a ticket on 014 stock unless it carried at least one segment with an AC code. In terms of liability, the issuing carrier has the contract of carraige with the passenger and should the operating carrier go under, AC would be responsible for reprotection, no?

I think the most cities I've seen tagged in a row is six, three each on two bag tags, and even then the pax told me that wasn't his whole journey but was as far ahead as the tag printer would go.

[This message has been edited by YYZC2 (edited 06-03-2003).]
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Old Jun 3, 2003, 2:00 pm
  #7  
 
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I understand that interlining and codeshare are different.

What I fail to grasp is how AC could issue the ticket that had the second segment on DL (first segment was YYZ->MCO and AC), but if I want to do something like YYZ->ORD->OKC and the ORD->OKC is not a codeshare flight, AC is unable to "see" it or sell me the ticket. Ditto if I do the return component entirely on UA.

So I have to go to UA, and then I often get the lovely SSSS on my BP as it comes in as a one way ticket
Simon is offline  
Old Jun 3, 2003, 7:31 pm
  #8  
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The AA flight has been credited to BA's account. Whew. I was getting a little concerned there.

Guy Betsy is offline  
Old Jun 3, 2003, 10:01 pm
  #9  
 
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Thats why I always tell the check-in agent "I would like to be checked in to XXX ONLY".
daniellam is offline  
Old Jun 4, 2003, 2:00 am
  #10  
 
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<font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif" size="2">Originally posted by Simon:
What I fail to grasp is how AC could issue the ticket that had the second segment on DL (first segment was YYZ-&gt;MCO and AC), but if I want to do something like YYZ-&gt;ORD-&gt;OKC and the ORD-&gt;OKC is not a codeshare flight, AC is unable to "see" it or sell me the ticket. Ditto if I do the return component entirely on UA.</font>
AC can sell you ORD-OKC under a UA code. But the price would be different.

If you had YYZ-ORD-OKC all under an AC code, the fare will most likely be a YYZ-OKC AC fare (with an ORD connection).

However, if you had YYZ-AC-ORD-UA-OKC, then the fare becomes a combination of the YYZ-ORD AC fare and the ORD-OKC UA fare, which is probably higher than the YYZ-OKC AC fare.
keithguy is offline  


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