manymanymiles

Can anyone explain what the rules are about changes to mileage tickets.

I had booked an LAX to Paris in First/Club. However when I booked I accidentally selected into ORY and out of CDG. I think the flight selection screen shows both airports if you enter Paris.

So this was my error, now I tried to fix the problem (by flying back from ORY) and not only failed to get onto the ORY to LHR flight but also had my LHR to LAX leg cancelled.

I called BA from ORY once I had realized I was at the wrong airport and needed to change the ticket.

I spoke to 3 different people and was happy to simply cancel the existing flight and buy a new one on BA to LHR, swap onto the ORY using my CDG to LHR ticket or just not travel and fly a different carrier.

None of these options helped as the LHR to LAX leg was going to be cancelled whatever I did, other than get to CDG for the flight I had but it was already too late for that.

Reasons given were too close to departure to make change as the flight is under the control of the airport, then no changes allowed 24 hours before departure. The first lady I spoke to however said it was ok but would be $75 even if I did not fly which was amusing.

The BA ticket desk was not open so this was all done on calls and I ended up getting the next Air France flight as there seemed to be no advantage hanging around at ORY for the evening.

So today I went to checkin at T5 First and as i had been told my reservation was not accepted. It had not been cancelled but I could not travel on it.

I not 100% of the rules but this at the very least appears to make no sense.

Further I was able to get today on the same flight a mileage seat in First, which of course I needed miles and $$s. So I effectively have 2 seats on my flight, I believe however the other reservation has now been released but when I checked in it had not been as it was still holding the seat I had previously selected.

While I plan to contact customer service and plead my case but does anyone have a view or experience if I am wasting my time?

Thanks

Paralytic

I'm not sure I fully understand what you did here, so my assumption is:

You booked LAX-LHR-ORY/CDG-LHR-LAX, whereas you wanted LAX-LHR-ORY/ORY-LHR-LAX

You travelled the outbound legs but on the inbound you turned up at ORY and noticed your mistake. BA would not let you travel ORY-LHR as you were booked CDG-LHR.

Is that right?

I think there's two things going against you here.

1) As soon as you missed your CDG-LHR flight, you were always going to be denied boarding on LHR-LAX sector. This is correct as per the T&Cs.

2) This may have changed, but I believe you cannot change a redemption booking within 24 hours of the flight.

So, it sounds like BA were right in what they did here. You might as well ask BA if they will do anything for you, but I doubt they will.

weirdfish

That's my understanding of the OP too so I also think there is nothing untoward in regard to T&C.

manymanymiles

My frustration is that when I knew I could not make the CDG flight even though I called to let them know I was inside the 24 hour no change period.

I think as you say this may be int he T&Cs however it really does not seem to make sense.

I did call 2 hours before the CDG flight departure time to say I would not make it.


Is cancelling one of the legs considered a change? I fear it might be.

Anyone know the reason for the if you do not fly on one leg all the others are cancelled? It really does not appear to make much sense.

cornishsimon

It's a rule across the board not just on miles tickets, I think one explanation is that sometimes tickets are cheaper when purchased from different countries, for example I live in the UK, club and first tickets to SFO are cheaper if purchased EXEU for example AMS.

If they allowed people to miss the first leg and still catch the following flights what would stop me booking AMS-LHR-SFO and just turning up at LHR ad getting on this flight but at a much cheaper fare and without starting my trip from the country where it's cheaper ?

cs

The Special One

It actually makes perfect sence, cornishsimon has summed it up perfectly. EX-EU flights can be a hell of a lot cheaper than flying direct from London and if people where allowed to skip the first leg and still fly the second everyone would just book the cheaper EX-EU flight.

The reason EX-EU flights can be cheaper than bookings that start in London is to entice EU based flyers to do a AMS/CDG/FRA-LHR-XXX flight instead of flying direct with say KLM, Air France, Lufthansa ect.

I know you say at T-2 hours before your CDG flight was due to depart you called BA, but im just curious, how much time did you have between your CDG flight departing once you first noticed your mistake.

OverThereTooMuch

While she did explain it perfectly, it's not exactly fair to say that it makes sense.

As far the original issue when booking, I've noticed this when using the availability checker. Even if you've put in CDG as the destination city, and even if there are plenty of CDG options available, sometimes you will STILL end up with ORY as the destination.

manymanymiles

The EX-EU explanation is ok for paid tickets but in this case the legs to Paris are free (or at least no more miles) so that is not a good explanation.

And as stated cities with more than 1 airports very often display all the alternatives and are very easy to mix up.

OverThereTooMuch

You should get that if you put in PAR or NYC. The tool should be smart enough NOT to give you that when you specifically choose the airport.

rupert_s

Although UK APD would add a fair chunk of change to the ticket if you were to originate from LHR.

The Special One

EX EU fares do make pefect sense. Example, i live in Frankfurt and want to fly to say New York. Why fly via Heathrow with BA when you can fly direct with Lufthansa. So offer passengers whos starting point is over in mainland Europe a discount is to entice them to fly via LHR instead of direct.

As for the OP saying the missing of the first leg then rest of booking gets cancelled rule is fine for paid tickets but shouldn't matter for reward tickets. I think UK APD comes into play. Taxes are more expensive for flights starting in the UK vs mainland Europe. So again booking a ex eu flight but if you could skip the first leg would save you some ��� in taxes.

cornishsimon

She ?????

Globaliser

As a general rule, this makes perfect sense.

It can just seem slightly daft to apply it rigidly when the pax is physically present in the EU country of origin - indeed, at an airport in the city of origin albeit the wrong airport - and is prepared to pay extra to rectify their own mistake and then catch up with the booked itinerary. Obviously, even on a paid ticket there would clearly be no intention to evade or manipulate the fare rules.

manymanymiles

My feeling was this was a rather rigid application of the rule.

I am also still not clear for the mileage tickets why the rule even applies, the EX-EU makes sense, however it is no extra miles to and from a number of cities northern Europe from the US. Actually I think its the same number of miles and just to England but there may be addition taxes.

cornishsimon

you are correct, taxes are quite a lot less EX EU compared to EX UK, providing(i think) that your transit is less than 24 hours



Correct, and i totally agree, I didnt say that i agreed with the policy, just that i can see why the policy exists.

In the case of the OP its clear that BA should of just altered the ticket and allowed him/her to board the next available flight at ORY and then onward ex LHR to LAX, its a clear mistake on the part of the OP

I think its a case of rules are rules, but it should of been a case of them are the rules but in this case ill use my discretion and do the right thing.

Perhaps a quick PM to Nicci to explain and see where she suggests you go with this ?

cs