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Old Aug 14, 2007 | 7:15 am
  #1  
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HIP Rule Question

I think I understand the crux of how this rule works but am confused about one part:

Suppose I have found a HKG-LAX fare with AC. It is mileage based and a valid routing is HKG-YYZ-LAX-YYZ-HKG but the fare is subject to the HIP check for stopovers. If I stop in YYZ one way, does this mean that

i) If HKG-YYZ is more expensive than HKG-YYZ-LAX I will have to pay extra?
ii) If YYZ-LAX is more expensive than HKG-LAX I will have to pay extra?
iii) Both?

Thanks!
sadiqhassan is offline  
Old Aug 14, 2007 | 8:10 am
  #2  
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Not sure about i), but ii) is a definite yes, but in your case I wouldn't worry about YYZ-LAX being more expensive than HKG-LAX. Did you check if a stopover was allowed?
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Old Aug 14, 2007 | 9:16 am
  #3  
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Originally Posted by stevenshev
Not sure about i), but ii) is a definite yes, but in your case I wouldn't worry about YYZ-LAX being more expensive than HKG-LAX. Did you check if a stopover was allowed?
I'm talking purely theoretically. The actual situation is a lot more complicated than this (multi city itinerary with many transits) and HKG-YYZ-LAX is just a part of it

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Old Aug 14, 2007 | 9:17 am
  #4  
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Actually, now that I think about it, yes, yes, and yes. On all 3.
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