Hey everyone!

Was looking at booking this great deal I found for a one way business class flight from Newcastle to Los Angeles on British Airways and airBerlin. I'd be flying economy on British Airways NCL-LHR-BER, then BER-LAX on airBerling the following morning in business class. It's all on the same ticket so I wanted to see what will my baggage allowance be considered as? The difference airlines, different classes and different baggage allowances of the airlines has me thrown.

Many thanks in advance!
rdlncl

I suggest you to have a look at this thread, especially posts #2 and #4. Based on this I believe that the rules of the overwater marketing carrier (AB I suppose) apply for your whole yourney.

How long is your stay in BER. If it is within 24 hours, then BER is considered a transit and therefore the AB allowance will be applied for the entire journey, provided that as you mentioned it is all on 1 TKT. However, is you are staying in BER for >24 hours, then BER is considered a stopover, and BA's intra-Europe rule would govern the allowance for NCL-LHR-BER.

NOTE: This is not really correct.

Thanks JnsV and ernestnywang! Extremely helpful!

To unequivocally clarify:

Whether this is a one-way booking that terminates in the USA, or a return booking with a turnaround point in the USA then it is the luggage allowance of the MARKETING CARRIER of the first Journey - this applies for the entire booking.

If you are in BER for no more than 24 hours then it is a transit and the luggage allowance of the carrier represented by the flight number on you BER-LAX flight would be yours for the entire booking.

If you are in BER for more than 24 hours then it is a stopover and the luggage allowance of the carrier represented by the flight number on your LHR-BER flight would be yours for the entire booking, including BER-LAX.

If this is a return booking, irrespective of any routing on the return, whichever of the above luggage allowances qualifies will apply to the entire booking.

I guess we were both wrong. The stopover does not seem to matter. As AB is the carrier that takes OP from Area 2 to Area 1, AB is the Most Significant Carrier (MSC) so AB's rule applt for the entire TKT, not BA's even if BER were a stopover.

NOTE: This is not really correct.

I had believed with the USA DOT exception the luggage allowance for the first journey applies for the entire booking.

[EDIT][/EDIT]

If there's a stopover in BER then there are at least two journies: NCL-BER and BER-LAX (more if this is a return booking). In which case the NCL-BER allowance would apply for the entire booking. (For travel within a IATA Tariff sub-areas, the carrier performing carriage on the first international sector. )

It could be the booking engine used is still referring to IATA resolution 301 - which I doubt - maybe APTCO is not working correctly - anyway that benefits the passenger in this case.

I am not sure how DoT puts it, but this does not make much sense. What if the first journey were, say, operated / marketed by an airline that gives no free baggage? Does the rest of the trip follow that rule even if the PAX were to travel in F? If you have YVR-(AA-M)-ODFW-(BA-F)-JFK, I would not think it would be justified to say the entire journey does not allow bag for free because YVR-DFW is the first journey. Nonetheless, I have found out that the whole thing does not work as easily as I previously said. Here is something interesting. By the way, I use Abacus (the Asian version of Sabre).

This post is useful: http://www.flyertalk.com/forum/briti...l#post17448077

And this even more so ...http://www.cxagentsusa.com/images/30...GE_RULES_1.pdf

Going by that .pdf I was incorrect.

With the USA DoT exception, CX are indicating the MSC is to be ascertained on the entire journey irrespective of Stopovers, so it's the marketing carrier of either first crossing between TC's, or if none then the first crossing between sub areas and if neither of these it's the first International segment.