MSPeconomist

If you use a business credit card, there can be a question about who is paying. AFAIK some employers set up these credit cards for employees such that the company pays the bill, but I've been offered credit cards by my employer that state very explicitly that I am responsible for paying the bill (and any late fees, etc.) regardless of whether I've been reimbursed by the due date for the bill. However, I'd be shocked if a merchant could distinguish these details on a customer's credit card.

Kacee

Yup. If Marriott's intent was to exclude all stays that are not paid directly by the guest, that intent is definitely not reflected in the writing.

Marriott has been tinkering with the T&C's so much lately, I'm not sure anyone at corporate really understands them as they're actually written.

cricketer

Pretty sure it was a room block - we have a rate with the hotel, but booked a block of rooms because we didn't know exactly who would be filling them on this trip, and that happens from time to time. Honestly this all likely falls in some weird gray area. If Marriott just told me "because there was a block, we consider it an event, and therefore there's no credit possible since you didn't pay directly either" then we'd know exactly what to adjust for the future. Will take your advice though - and ensure that we all just pay directly next time, or at least those who care to earn the points and stays.

I buy your explanation more than what Marriott is telling me, that's for sure.

SPN Lifer

I'd say that if your own individual name appears on the company credit card, that would count as "directly" paid by you. That is the safest way for companies to ensure their employees get their "loyalty" rewards.

The same applies to to being an authorized user on a spouse's card. That is why my wife & I are each authorized users on each other's Chase Marriott Bonv°y Visa card.

High Technology

Do we really think this is/was Marriott’s intent? I agree a literal read of the “personally pays” language could get there, but I always interpreted this as the individual room is paid for at booking (in the case of prepaid rates), or individually at the property for all other rates. I always assume this language was to preclude benefits for consolidator rates, airline vouchers, etc., and not to deny benefits for individually paid stays (as long as the member stayed in the room).

Since there is also a requirement to stay in the room, it shouldn’t matter how I physically pay for it (i.e., the form of payment shouldn’t matter). We’ve paid with my spouse’s card on occasion, sometimes to achieve an unrelated credit card perk when we both stayed in the room. It’s never been a concern, other than one time when they asked for her photo ID since she wasn’t standing at the front desk with me (she was hanging back 15 feet away so my whole family wasn’t crowding the front desk), which was more of a fraud prevention measure.

One could come up with a bunch of other irrational readings based on the language. For example, I check in, present a credit card in my name, but someone else in the room checks out. Since the act of checking out effectively triggers the payment, is the person who checks out effectively paying for the room?