Multiple Entry Schengen Visa Question
Mar 27, 2017 | 12:02 pm
#1
Original Poster
Join Date: Mar 2017
Posts: 2
Multiple Entry Schengen Visa Question
Hello,
So I was issued a multi entry tourist visa from a country in the schengen area. I have visited 3 other (not the issuing country) countries in the schengen area using this visa for short trips. As I was leaving the last country, at passport control the immigration officer asked me if I was planning to visit the country that the visa was issued by and I said yes as I had plans. He mentioned that not visiting the issuing country is a criminal offence. Now however my plans have changed and I cant go to the issuing country and visa is about to expire.
I didn't realise that this is criminal offence, is it true? And if so what should I do?
So I was issued a multi entry tourist visa from a country in the schengen area. I have visited 3 other (not the issuing country) countries in the schengen area using this visa for short trips. As I was leaving the last country, at passport control the immigration officer asked me if I was planning to visit the country that the visa was issued by and I said yes as I had plans. He mentioned that not visiting the issuing country is a criminal offence. Now however my plans have changed and I cant go to the issuing country and visa is about to expire.
I didn't realise that this is criminal offence, is it true? And if so what should I do?
Mar 29, 2017 | 6:15 am
#2
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Kyiv, Ukraine
Programs: Mucci, BA Gold for Life, TK Elite, HHonors Lifetime Diamond
Posts: 8,375
I don't think it is a criminal offence but it is definitely a misuse of the visa. You should have first gone to the country that issued your visa. You may be denied your next visa or have the next one issued for a shorter term/single entry or asked for an explanation of why you never visited the country that issued the visa. I don't think you can do anything now to mitigate any consequences for you (if it even comes to that). The rule is that you should have entered/visited the issuing country first. Did you originally plan not to visit the issuing country but applied for a visa there because it was easier to get or did your plans change?
Mar 29, 2017 | 12:30 pm
#3
Join Date: Jun 2015
Location: CPH
Posts: 106
I don't think it is a rule to enter the issuing country first, but if multiple countries are visitied then the issuing country must be the one with the primary focus of the trip. Has that changed or is that different depending on the country issuing the visa?
Obviously, never going to the country that issued the visa is clearly not the way it's supposed to be done. While I also doubt it is a criminal offence, you might run into difficulties for future visa applications.
Obviously, never going to the country that issued the visa is clearly not the way it's supposed to be done. While I also doubt it is a criminal offence, you might run into difficulties for future visa applications.
Mar 29, 2017 | 1:31 pm
#4
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Kyiv, Ukraine
Programs: Mucci, BA Gold for Life, TK Elite, HHonors Lifetime Diamond
Posts: 8,375
There is no requirement to enter the issuing country - just to visit it. There is a line on the visa application form where applicants must indicate what the country of their entry into the Schengen zone would be. So, if the OP were going to country X but connecting at an airport in country Y that would have been in the application. And the immigration officer at the airport of country Y would have asked the OP where they were going. There are ways to establish whether the person actually went to the country that issued the visa. Not going to the issuing country at all is a misuse of visa. Some Schengen countries are rather strict about it.
Mar 30, 2017 | 6:49 am
#5
Join Date: Mar 2016
Location: Everywhere, mostly AMS
Posts: 4,578
Not really, even if OP bought a plane ticket, the authorities would have no idea as API is not generally required for those flights, and some airlines never even check your identity...
Mar 30, 2017 | 7:57 am
#6
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Kyiv, Ukraine
Programs: Mucci, BA Gold for Life, TK Elite, HHonors Lifetime Diamond
Posts: 8,375
What I meant is that if there are any doubts whether the applicant ever visited the country that issued the visa, the Consulate would request documents (boarding passes, hotel receipts, etc) that would prove such a visit when the person next applies.
Apr 3, 2017 | 2:05 am
#7
Original Poster
Join Date: Mar 2017
Posts: 2
I don't think it is a criminal offence but it is definitely a misuse of the visa. You should have first gone to the country that issued your visa. You may be denied your next visa or have the next one issued for a shorter term/single entry or asked for an explanation of why you never visited the country that issued the visa. I don't think you can do anything now to mitigate any consequences for you (if it even comes to that). The rule is that you should have entered/visited the issuing country first. Did you originally plan not to visit the issuing country but applied for a visa there because it was easier to get or did your plans change?