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Multiple Entry Schengen Visa Question
Hello,
So I was issued a multi entry tourist visa from a country in the schengen area. I have visited 3 other (not the issuing country) countries in the schengen area using this visa for short trips. As I was leaving the last country, at passport control the immigration officer asked me if I was planning to visit the country that the visa was issued by and I said yes as I had plans. He mentioned that not visiting the issuing country is a criminal offence. Now however my plans have changed and I cant go to the issuing country and visa is about to expire. I didn't realise that this is criminal offence, is it true? And if so what should I do? |
I don't think it is a criminal offence but it is definitely a misuse of the visa. You should have first gone to the country that issued your visa. You may be denied your next visa or have the next one issued for a shorter term/single entry or asked for an explanation of why you never visited the country that issued the visa. I don't think you can do anything now to mitigate any consequences for you (if it even comes to that). The rule is that you should have entered/visited the issuing country first. Did you originally plan not to visit the issuing country but applied for a visa there because it was easier to get or did your plans change?
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I don't think it is a rule to enter the issuing country first, but if multiple countries are visitied then the issuing country must be the one with the primary focus of the trip. Has that changed or is that different depending on the country issuing the visa?
Obviously, never going to the country that issued the visa is clearly not the way it's supposed to be done. While I also doubt it is a criminal offence, you might run into difficulties for future visa applications. |
Originally Posted by Arctifox
(Post 28102944)
I don't think it is a rule to enter the issuing country first, but if multiple countries are visitied then the issuing country must be the one with the primary focus of the trip.
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Originally Posted by Andriyko
(Post 28103230)
There are ways to establish whether the person actually went to the country that issued the visa.
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Originally Posted by Ditto
(Post 28106045)
Not really, even if OP bought a plane ticket, the authorities would have no idea as API is not generally required for those flights, and some airlines never even check your identity...
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Originally Posted by Andriyko
(Post 28101325)
I don't think it is a criminal offence but it is definitely a misuse of the visa. You should have first gone to the country that issued your visa. You may be denied your next visa or have the next one issued for a shorter term/single entry or asked for an explanation of why you never visited the country that issued the visa. I don't think you can do anything now to mitigate any consequences for you (if it even comes to that). The rule is that you should have entered/visited the issuing country first. Did you originally plan not to visit the issuing country but applied for a visa there because it was easier to get or did your plans change?
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