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Old Sep 16, 2012 | 9:09 pm
  #16  
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Originally Posted by UshuaiaHammerfest
Really, don't waste your money on DUI specialists. DUI lawyers specialize in pleading cases to wet reckless and collecting $2500 for their hour of trouble... Lawyers who specialize in DUI don't like to take cases to trial or even go through your particulars -- they make a lot more money by pleading you out.
Just as in any other field, there are good and bad attorneys. The ones I have in mind are worth their fees which are considerably higher than $2,500. You get what you pay for. When they go to trial they win because they know the Breathalyzer and the other instruments used to measure the blood alcohol levels better than the prosecution's expert witnesses. Their mere appearance in court will cause the offer on a case such as this to be substantially reduced, perhaps to as low as two tickets (which combined are only one point on the driving record).

And as has been said, "wet reckless" is the *exact* same thing as a DUI in the eyes of law enforcement, it just lets you save a little face on job applications.
Well, that's incorrect. A "wet" reckless is the same as a DUI for priorability purposes, but it does not carry the minimum mandatory jail sentence and a few other sanctions that a DUI conviction entails.
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Old Sep 16, 2012 | 9:28 pm
  #17  
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Originally Posted by SWCPHX
.08 is just the number that defines presumed to be impaired.
That isn't entirely correct-- in some states, 0.05% is caries a rebuttable presumption of intoxication. 0.08% is the per se limit, not the presumption level which varies from jurisdiction to jurisdiction.

Originally Posted by SWCPHX
If you're found to be .08 or higher the prosecution doesn't have to prove impairment because numerous studies over the years have shown that an operator is impaired at .08 or higher.
No, the prosecution doesn't have to prove intoxication because the legislature set a per se legal limit at 0.08%. What studies show is not relevant.

Originally Posted by Often1
OP has already stated that he's pleading guilty. If he's not, he can take it to trial and win or lose as the facts come out.

This thread is about the immigration implications of a plea and those are extraordinarily serious and are the reason he needs a skilled immigration attorney.
Originally Posted by Often1
Get yourself a really good immigration attorney. Screwups here can result in problems, not just now, but for many years.

The US takes alcohol-related stuff really seriously and, unfortunately for you, motor vehicle crimes are much better and rapidly tracked than non-motor vehicle.
DUI (even a bona fide DUI) is not a CIMT. For immigration purposes, a minor drug charge is much more of an problem than a simple DUI.

Originally Posted by Often1
You don't explain your status, visa or nationality, so it's hard to answer with certainty. But, you should plan on being denied a visa and being excluded even if one is issued.
Did you want to cite a law that supports your assertion? And why would nationality matter anyway?

Originally Posted by WillCAD
And by the way - don't drink and drive any more. You put yourself and everyone else on the road in mortal danger when you do, which is why it's illegal in the first place.
To "drink and drive" is not illegal in the first place. Driving under the influence is illegal. If I have one drink and then drive home, I am not putting everyone else on the road in mortal danger, nor am I committing a crime.

***

The OP should consult a competent criminal attorney and a competent immigration attorney, but the tone of this thread-- that a DUI or similar is a death knell for immigration purposes-- has no basis in law or fact. It is serious, but not as serious as everyone here seems to think it is. An attorney (a real one, not a blogger) can set the record straight.
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Old Sep 17, 2012 | 3:43 am
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Originally Posted by TWA884
Well, that's incorrect. A "wet" reckless is the same as a DUI for priorability purposes, but it does not carry the minimum mandatory jail sentence and a few other sanctions that a DUI conviction entails.
Probably depends on the state. I've known two people convicted of DUI (they didn't plea bargain) and they served no jail time.

By "law enforcement" I only meant police officers, CBP, and so on. I didn't mean the court system (which would impose jail sentences -- law enforcement doesn't do this). My point was that when a LEO/CBP/etc looks at your record and sees "wet reckless," they think "DUI."

Your advice on the quality of attorney is very true and very good advice (albeit expensive). It's the $2500 Drive-Thru Plea Bargainers that I was saying should be avoided.


Originally Posted by Ari
The OP should consult a competent criminal attorney and a competent immigration attorney, but the tone of this thread-- that a DUI or similar is a death knell for immigration purposes-- has no basis in law or fact. It is serious, but not as serious as everyone here seems to think it is. An attorney (a real one, not a blogger) can set the record straight.
+1

Everyone seems to be applying lessons from GE denials to immigration as a whole. That said, I believe Canada does treat DUI conviction as a death knell to immigration. (I think... I may be confusing it with Canada's stance on felonies.)

Last edited by UshuaiaHammerfest; Sep 17, 2012 at 3:54 am
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Old Sep 17, 2012 | 5:50 am
  #19  
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Originally Posted by UshuaiaHammerfest
Probably depends on the state. I've known two people convicted of DUI (they didn't plea bargain) and they served no jail time.
No jail time is standard for first-time DUIs except in a very few select states where there is a minimum of 24-48 hours.

Originally Posted by UshuaiaHammerfest
Everyone seems to be applying lessons from GE denials to immigration as a whole. That said, I believe Canada does treat DUI conviction as a death knell to immigration. (I think... I may be confusing it with Canada's stance on felonies.)
That is my impression. People are confusing Canada's stance on DUIs and Global Entry criteria with US immigration law. It is quite possible that a simple DUI or a wet reckless has no immigration implications in the USA; I don't know. But I can gaurantee it isn't nearly as serious as poeple here make it out to be.
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Old Sep 17, 2012 | 9:14 am
  #20  
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Originally Posted by UshuaiaHammerfest
Probably depends on the state. I've known two people convicted of DUI (they didn't plea bargain) and they served no jail time.
Originally Posted by Ari
No jail time is standard for first-time DUIs except in a very few select states where there is a minimum of 24-48 hours.
The OP's case is pending in California. I cited California law.
Originally Posted by swengineer
I'm getting a wet reckless, reduced from a dui, in california, and i'm going back to renew my visa.
California requires all convicted DUI offenders to serve time in jail. For first offenders the mandatory minimum is 48 hours. The minimum increases to 96 hours for a second offense within 10 years and 120 days for a third offense. A fourth offense can be prosecuted as a felony.
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Old Sep 19, 2012 | 12:30 am
  #21  
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Originally Posted by TWA884
The OP's case is pending in California. I cited California law.
First of all, I was responding to another poster who said that he knows two people who were convicted of DUI who served no jail time; I was saying that it is the exception that a first-time DUI offender serves jail time . . . except in a few states. It was a general statement and had no relationship to where the OP is alleged to have committed his DUI.

Originally Posted by TWA884
California requires all convicted DUI offenders to serve time in jail. For first offenders the mandatory minimum is 48 hours. The minimum increases to 96 hours for a second offense within 10 years and 120 days for a third offense. A fourth offense can be prosecuted as a felony.
Second of all, you are incorrect in your understanding of the law. Section 23538 which deals with probation:

Originally Posted by CA Vehicle Code Section 23538
(a) (1) If the court grants probation to person punished under Section 23536, in addition to the provisions of Section 23600 and any other terms and conditions imposed by the court, the court shall impose as a condition of probation that the person pay a fine of at least three hundred ninety dollars ($390), but not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000). The court may also impose, as a condition of probation, that the person be confined in a county jail for at least 48 hours, but not more than six months.
(emphasis added)

In other words, a judge can find a defendant guilty in which case the 48/96 hour minimum applies, but if a judge "grants probation to person punished under Section 23536," the judge can choose to impose jail time . . . or not. So jail time is not required if a person is granted probation. (The law is written in such a way that someone not familiar with California criminal law-- namely what a judge granting probation means under the law and how it differs from a standard guilty disposition-- could easily reach the same mistaken conclusion you reached). Bottom line: A grant of probation is the norm for first-time DUIs in California, and no jail time is the norm for that probation. If there are aggarvating factors, all bets are off, but in the case of your garden-variety DUI, probation with no jail time is the most likely outcome.
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Old Sep 19, 2012 | 6:59 am
  #22  
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Originally Posted by Ari
Bottom line: A grant of probation is the norm for first-time DUIs in California, and no jail time is the norm for that probation.
Wrong.

I practice in California courts and I am familiar with the sentencing practices here. Jail time is the norm for first time offenders who are placed on probation.
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Old Sep 19, 2012 | 7:33 pm
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Originally Posted by SWCPHX
.08 is just the number that defines presumed to be impaired. If you're found to be .08 or higher the prosecution doesn't have to prove impairment because numerous studies over the years have shown that an operator is impaired at .08 or higher. You can still be impaired at less than .08 and then it's up to the prosecution to show how you were impaired, it could have been a substance that was magnified by the alcohol that led to impairment. Furthermore, depending on when the test was taken, the percentage at the time of the stop can be determined based upon statistical analysis taking into account metabolism, weight, sex, etc. You could have blood drawn hours after the stop that comes back less than .08 but based upon the reverse analysis, it can be determined that hours prior at the time of the stop you were in fact over .08.
Yes, but the problem is "impairment" is purely in the eyes of the beholder and left completely to the interpretation of the officer. I had a friend who was arrested, charged, and convicted for blowing a 0.04. There was no dashboard cam, blood test was well below legal limit. Purely officers word against his. Reckless driving charges also fall in to this area. Unless you're are in an accident or there is video evidence, it is the officers word and their word only. There is almost no way to defend yourself in a court of law. I'm not trying to get off topic, but this reeks of the same nonsense that the TSA practices. Yet in these cases it can end up with you in jail, or in this case, deported.
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Old Sep 20, 2012 | 2:03 am
  #24  
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Originally Posted by TWA884
Wrong.

I practice in California courts and I am familiar with the sentencing practices here. Jail time is the norm for first time offenders who are placed on probation.
For first time wet reckless driving and other DUI/DWI situations not involving harm to other persons/property? Given California's budget problems and over-filled jails/prisons, can they really manage to make it the state norm?
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Old Sep 20, 2012 | 4:37 am
  #25  
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Originally Posted by GUWonder
For first time wet reckless driving and other DUI/DWI situations not involving harm to other persons/property? Given California's budget problems and over-filled jails/prisons, can they really manage to make it the state norm?
The fines for DUI would easily cover that. But there are a lot of jail alternatives anyway.
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Old Sep 20, 2012 | 9:14 am
  #26  
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Originally Posted by GUWonder
For first time wet reckless driving and other DUI/DWI situations not involving harm to other persons/property?
48 hours in jail as a condition of probation is the norm for a first time DUI, regardless whether there are injuries to other parties or property damage. A conviction of Vehicle Code Section 23153, DUI causing injury to another person, carries a mandatory minimum jail time of five days as a condition of probation or 90 days without probation.

Except for unusual circumstances or when bodily injury to other is involved, it is not the courts' practice to impose jail time as a condition of probation for a first time conviction of alcohol related reckless driving, the so called "wet reckless."
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Old Sep 20, 2012 | 10:10 pm
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I agree with those who said to get an immigration lawyer involved. In many cases the interpretation and consequences under immigration law for the same offense to a non-Citizen (in terms of immigration status etc) is more severe than to a Citizen who may not face any consequences or minimal consequences such as a fine for the same offence.
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Old Sep 21, 2012 | 12:29 am
  #28  
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Originally Posted by swengineer
I'm getting a wet reckless, reduced from a dui, in california, and i'm going back to renew my visa.
Has that been bargained, or automatic from the DA?

Originally Posted by TWA884
California requires all convicted DUI offenders to serve time in jail. For first offenders the mandatory minimum is 48 hours. The minimum increases to 96 hours for a second offense within 10 years and 120 days for a third offense. A fourth offense can be prosecuted as a felony.
It is the law, not the reality - which basically all first-time DUI offenders should be able to skip prison. If you have a question, see Lindsay Lohan's experience.
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