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Old Jul 6, 2019, 11:12 am
  #121  
 
Join Date: Nov 2014
Posts: 255
Originally Posted by JonNYC
I think I'm missing that-- best I've been able to see indicative of a time period is "I haven't let it sit around for weeks" (followed by "I haven't let it sit around for days endlessly")
I concur. Thought I missed it in the lengthy and quite active thread.
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Old Jul 6, 2019, 11:15 am
  #122  
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Originally Posted by rumboj
AA’s stance is that it does play a role. The contractual obligation of acquiring the ticket is not complete until the customer has made payment within the 24 hour period. He didn’t do that...and seemingly not because of some innocent error. As a result, the OP should not have received his ticket at that initial rate. It was only available to him had he fulfilled his obligation of paying within the 24 hour period. Is AA willing to make exceptions? Sure...when there is a legit error in the payment process. This doesn’t appear to be a legit error because it has happened so often.
What you say is not correct. That stuff is not written anywhere. This situation certainly creates the potential for someone to abuse the system, because he can cancel the reservation anytime when it is still unticketed, essentially getting a free hold. However, if he never did that, there is no lost revenue for AA to claim. But they are certainly exposed to that potential.
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Old Jul 6, 2019, 11:19 am
  #123  
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Originally Posted by JonNYC
I think I'm missing that-- best I've been able to see indicative of a time period is "It hasn't sat around for weeks" (followed by "[haven't let this] sit around for days endlessly.") Could -easily- be missing what you're talking about though.
If he had purchased all tickets within the 24 hold periods, I'm pretty sure he would have said so explicitly (instead of making us beat around the bush).

That having been said, this conversation would benefit greatly from a bit of clarification.

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Old Jul 6, 2019, 11:39 am
  #124  
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: SLC/HEL/Anywhere with a Beach
Programs: Marriott Ambassador; AA EXP 3MM; AS MVP, Hilton Gold, CH-47/UH-60/C-23/C-130 VET
Posts: 5,234
Originally Posted by Quinlanty
Can somebody explain why if American places a preliminary charge on the cc, why would the updated charge be declined. In all of my experiences, merchants just update the charge amount and your card isn’t ran again. Even had an instance where the correct amount caused me to go over my limit but charge still cleared.
I don't think American does that.

In contrast, when I check into a hotel, they preauthorize an amount to my cc. When I check out, they charge me and the preauthorization drops off. The cc companies understand the difference between a preautorization and a charge.
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Old Jul 6, 2019, 11:40 am
  #125  
Moderator: New York City and FlyerTalk Evangelist
 
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Posts: 10,855
Thread closed for VAR review.

/Moderator
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