Originally Posted by
Bukhara
You should be asking yourself that question when you make this legal action sound like it has already been won.
You don't need any case law to prove what is already to be found in the statute.
A contract can be voided for a number of specific reasons (e.g. misrepresentation or illegal terms), and the whim of one of the parties isn't included in the list.
If you can find me any statute or case that contradicts
this part, or
this part, or
this part of the Sale Of Goods Act 1979, I'll grant you that the chances of winning this are less than 100%.