Originally Posted by
lsquare
What
antonius66 said is true. My girlfriend booked a stay under her name. She checked in before me as I was stuck in the office. When I arrived, I asked the front desk to add my Hyatt number to the folio since I had status. My girlfriend used her credit card for the pre-authorized charge. At check-out, I paid for the bill with my Chase Hyatt credit card. After a few days, I still didn't get credit for that night. I contacted Hyatt and they said according to their records, someone else paid for my stay. I said that's not true. The receipt I got from the property even showed the last 4 digits of my credit card. I offered to send the receipt to prove that it was me who paid for the stay. The rep kindly said no need since it was just one night and offered to give me the credit as a one-time courtesy. She then reminded me to always pay for my stay if I want the EQN. I took issue with the last sentence as it implied that I was lying. I reminded her that I have proof with me. She followed up with an apology and did not mean to offend me.
No offense, but what you did is not at all what I'm doing. Having the reservation originally made in your girlfriend's name, rather than your own, was just asking for problems and does not surprise me at all. That situation has been discussed numerous times over the years on FT and is pretty well known to be problematic.
In this case, reservation is in my name, we are arriving together, I will be the one checking into the property (not my wife). The credit card currently on file for the deposit is mine. I will be checking out. The only thing that will occur is settling the final bill with my wife's credit card, same last name. Pretty different circumstances. That said, there is a risk on the "who, specifically is paying" front and obviously, that is why I asked the question.
Regards