Hi all, another cabotage question as this seems to be the thread of choice.
Does ticket stock or codeshare matter, or is it literally just if one of the legs is operated by a US carrier?
Example for clarity:
XXX - MEX on AM ticket, AM flight number, operated by Aerolitoral
MEX - JFK on AM ticket, AM flight number, operated by Delta
Also curious if somehow round trip or one-way made any difference?
Why do you ask? Assuming XXX is a US point and MEX is a connection, I'm guessing it probably is not cabotage as 49 CFR § 41703 pertains to foreign
aircraft. Operated by DL would mean non-foreign aircraft.
However, according to DL, if marketing carrier is not US, it is cabotage.
https://pro.delta.com/content/agency.../cabotage.html
If travel originates from a U.S. city,
Delta cannot sell a ticket to Guam (GUM) with a connection in Seoul, Korea (ICN) if none of the flights are operated or marketed by a U.S. Carrier.
- ATL to ICN on KE-designated, KE-operated flight connecting to GUM on KE-designated, KE-operated flight is considered Cabotage.
- ATL to ICN on a KE-designated, DL-operated flight, connecting on to GUM on KE-designated, KE-operated flight is also considered Cabatage (sic).
The example provided in purple appears to contradict "if none of the flights are
operated or marketed by a U.S. Carrier" as ATL-ICN is DL operated so not sure why it would be cabotage.
My apologies as this doesn't really answer anything.
