Originally Posted by
emma69
How is it different to me getting a really good lease rate on my car, say $100 a month, and claiming $200 in mileage expenses? How someone comes by the vehicle doesn't seem relevant - if I used my mother's car for work, and put in the mileage, is that fraudulent? It still cost me money (gas) and that is the rate deemed 'acceptable' by the company for travelling from A to B for business. IRS / CRA rules may be different, but if your company is reimbursing, surely it doesn't matter?
Analogies never work.
The reason that it is taxable income is because that is what, for those who are US taxpayers, US tax law provides.
Running around saying that X is like Y doesn't matter if X is not income and Y is.