Originally Posted by
FedUp2
Dr. HFH, is this concept of "unilateral mistake" only a phenomenon of German (or Austrian / Swiss law) or is it also a concept of English common law? If the former only, then would it have any relevance to a CMB-DFW fare purchased by an US resident and paid with a US CC?
PS. I presume (and please correct me if I am wrong), your legal qualifications have Germanic origins?
unilateral mistake is very much English common law. (And USA as well.)
not relevant in USA to this case because of the DOT regs, but Swiss has tried to make it relevant for the RGN fares in the Canadian context.
Last edited by LHR/MEL/Europe FF; Feb 11, 2014 at 7:30 pm