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Old Dec 12, 2011 | 11:03 am
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SkiAdcock
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Originally Posted by NJUPINTHEAIR
Actually, that appears to be not wholly correct.

I recently dined at a Marriott hotel and tried to have the dinner applied to a phantom room and then pay at the front desk -- the front desk nixed that idea.

HOWEVER, I used my Marriott Visa to pay for the dinner and the dine was just coded as a Marriott hotel charge. I will soon see if it does indeed recieve a multiplier when paying with a Marriott Visa for a hotel stay, but it looks likely that I will get it, so one can't be sure just how a hotel restaurant will code the dine.

I will let you know when the charges post to my account.

NJ
I'm still thinking this would be more an exception than a rule, as I've been told no every time. But do report back! Of course for those that don't have or can't use Marriott Visa due to corp cards, they may still be out of luck.

FWIW - I'd rag on Marriott re: this, but I don't think the other big brands do it either - Starwood being the exception.

Cheers.
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