Originally Posted by
Anglo Large Clawed Otter
Does bribing employees of third world airlines headquartered in banana republics to create mistake fares violate the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act?
It is unlikely that airline employees would fall under the definition of 'foreign official' as contemplated by the statute. Maybe if it was a nationally owned airline?
Here's some wikipedia research to shed some dubious illumination on the matter:
According to the U. S. Department of Justice, the term foreign official is defined as any officer or employee of a foreign government or any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof, or of a public international organization, or any person acting in an official capacity for or on behalf of any such government or department, agency, or instrumentality, or for or on behalf of any such public international organization.