Originally Posted by
jbalmuth
Thanks for adding the exact quotation to the thread....and it is precisely section 4.4.b that I'm inquiring about.
What exactly is the mechanism that reservation offices should be using to ensure that the two tickets "each refers to the other and states that they are to be read in conjunction."
For GBP 90 per passenger (~$300), it's worth finding out how this "conjunction" can be created.
Thanks!
The 2 separate tickets xx-UK and then UK-yy are 2 completely unrelated and sold separately and so are not conjoined at all. You cannot create the conjunction
if you had gone to airline and purchased a ticket xx-yy , then it may have been made up of 2 fares to create the single itinerary but would been joined into a single ticketed itinerary and so would have been eligable to avoid it
There can be fares that can only be sold in conjunction with a certain type of ticket ( e.g. in Australia the OZPASS fares require that the be sold in conjunction with an international inbound ticket )
In your case, you just have 2 unrelated bookings; consider.. if they allowed this situation for avoiding APD somceone could purchase a refundable xxx-lhr and lhr-yyy and then , after purchasing lhr-yyy then cancel xxx-lhr and avoid the tax. If LHR-yyy is sold in conjunction ticket then it should not be able to exist in isolation of the xxx-LHR
Dave