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Old Jul 3, 2008 | 12:43 pm
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jpatokal
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Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: Terra Australis Cognita
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Originally Posted by sunnyjl
I'm not sure what you're referring to by 1:1
Sorry, let me try to make that clearer. So I invoice my clients for sum S, which consists of my travel expenses ("E") and my fee for actual work done ("W"). And I've had a couple of trips lately where E has been almost as large as W.

In my field, you set your hourly rate. Your hourly rate is in no way connected to expenses.
This is actually what I'm getting at -- surely there is a connection? At the end of the day, what matters to the customer is their total cost S (and that the work gets done!), not how it's divided up between my expenses and my profits.

An illustration: Let's say there's a local guy who charges W per day with no travel expenses (E=0). Why would the client be willing to instead pay me W+E, or twice as much? Because they feel that they're getting over twice the value out of me.
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