Originally Posted by
biggestbopper
IMHO, this is incorrect. Take a look at the Truth in Lending Act and implementing Fed Reg. Z. Paying before raising billing error claims indeed does lose you some rights.
See, for example,
http://ag.ca.gov/consumers/general/c...ack_rights.php
"You cannot dispute a charge under "claims and defenses" if you notify your bank after you have already paid your credit card amount down to zero. However, if you have paid off only a portion of your credit card bill, you can still resist payment on the unpaid balance for the charge you are disputing. For example, if the disputed charge was for $300 and your balance on the credit card was for $400 and your payment to your bank was only $150, you can still seek a chargeback for the remaining $250 under the "claims and defenses" category. Unlike "billing errors," whatever you have paid the credit card issuer after the charge appears on your statement which brings the remaining balance below the cost of the charge you are disputing, is not recoverable."
I stand corrected. I was thinking about billing disputes, which are unaffected by payments.
However, there are other restrictions on claims and defenses, too, as they "cannot be with a merchant who is located more than 100 miles from your home or outside your state of residence." Also, are you going to wait a year to pay just in case you need to dispute a charge under this provision?
I also am not sure I mean what it means to "pay your credit card account down to zero in this context". Although I pay my balance off in full each month, my credit card never has a zero balance, as there are always new charges incurred. Does that affect claims and defenses rights?