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Old Jul 2, 2002 | 7:54 pm
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<font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif" size="2">Originally posted by Counsellor:
But really, that's the point. While a sample of 900 might come out in one category with a round hundred responses (and thus look the same as "1 out of 9"), what are the odds that the remaining 800 would also all divide into exactly even hundreds? Pretty low, I would submit. Therefore, the fact that all categories are divisible by nine indicate that it is likely that only 9 (or maybe 18) folks have responded.
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Absolutel correct. As the sample size, N, gets large, the probability for any unique distribution of results from an assumed random process goes to zero (but remains finite).

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