Originally Posted by
BigVince76
Is there a significant difference in a 'code-share' flight and a *A flight? I thought the point of the alliance was that it did not matter which airline's "metal" you were sat in. I know in the past I have made trips that use several carriers on one ticket but with different flight number prefix, what difference would it have made if they had all had the same prefix? Does this make sense or am I being dim?
Basically a codeshare allows one carrier to sell seats on the services of another carrier. In the case of BD and UA, you can currently book ORD-MAN-ORD on united.com and you can book MAN-ORD-LAX (UA flight BD number) on flybmi.com. You cannot book MAN-ORD-PHX on flybmi.com using US Airways service from ORD. Most airlines will only sell their own services through their website/call centre. Having a codeshare counts their partner's flights like their own. Whilst I could fly MAN-BD-ORD-US-PHX I would have to book it through a travel agent and even here there would be less exposure than the connections on UA using a BD fligth number.
In the case of BD and UA a codeshare is very important as BD have little market recognition in the US. With the codeshare pax going to United.com will see the BD flights branded as UA flights. They will not see flights operated by other *A carriers (apart from LH whom UA also codeshare with over the pond).