Originally Posted by
exerda
And remember: when it comes to forfeiture cases, your money is assumed to be "guilty" simply by nature of its existence, unlike (most) criminal cases in which the defendent is presumed innocent.
Perhaps there are some state laws to which you are referring. But in the federal system, probable cause is required to seize and a preponderance is required to forfeit. There's no presumption of guilt, although the fact that a person cannot explain how they acquired a large amount of cash goes quite a long way towards establishing probable cause, IMHO.