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Old Feb 13, 2007 | 11:31 am
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pinniped
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Originally Posted by baseline
I'm pretty sure I know the answer to this already, but I want to confirm...

If someone were to book a trip from say PHL to FLL with a stop in CLT, is there any way to get on in CLT and just use the CLT-FLL portion of the ticket? The reason being that in this case it would be much less expensive to fly from PHL-FLL than from CLT-FLL (note that the destinations are just pulled out of the air).

Thanks,

Jonathan
No. That way won't work. If you don't show for Segment 1, Segment 2 will get canceled.

Maybe in the older days of paper "flight coupons" this might have worked, but with a regular domestic e-ticket, no dice.

The other way, of course, is theoretically possible. Say you're in PHL and want to get to CLT. But you notice that there's a promo one-way fare to Orlando, PHL-CLT-MCO, that's 1/4th the price of PHL-CLT. You could simply "get lost" in CLT and throwaway the CLT-MCO boarding pass.

Most airlines will immediately tell you that this is against their fare rules. They could theoretically lock your FF account or even attempt to charge your credit card some sort of higher fare if they catch you doing it.
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