Now that this thread has resurfaced with the above comment, it brings up another question. If the merchant has the signed credit card form and imprint or scan of the card with the original purchase, how can a customer get away with a dispute of the charge? My only guess is that the merchant can't trace the credit back to the second card even though the customer claims he returned the goods? But a check of the credit card activity by the merchant around the supposed return date should find the credit to a different card. Maybe I am missing something.