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Old Aug 2, 2001 | 6:32 pm
  #4  
Neal
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Join Date: May 1998
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<font face="Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif" size="2">Originally posted by bry99:
I'm not sure this is entirely legal, if done primarily for the purpose of getting the miles. There may be some problems with the cardholder agreement or the common law on this one.</font>
Let me get this straight...if I get a bill from the hospital, then pay that bill, it may be illegal?????? If so, this is the biggest "crime" I've ever committed in my life.

I've had hospital billing department personal thank me for paying so promptly. Do you have any idea just how long hospitals usually wait to get paid, whether by an insurance company or an individual? They must at least break even on the 2-3% from having the funds in their coffers that much sooner.

The cardholder agreement states that you are not entitled to miles for goods or services that have been returned or rescinded. I interpret this as meaning I would not be entitled to the miles if my credit card account was later credited. This makes sense as the card company would indeed be giving me free miles at their expense.

But if the charge stands and the hospital reimburses me by check, how does that have any bearing on the card issuer? Why should they even care? It makes no sense.



[This message has been edited by Neal (edited 08-02-2001).]
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