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Old Dec 13, 2005 | 9:27 pm
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Originally Posted by PTravel
In my opinion, the statute is unconstitutional for two primary reasons. First, as you note, "immoral" is undefined, rendering the statute fatally void for vagueness. Second, and more important, however, is that the statute engages in impermissible content-based discrimination, in violation of the First Amendment.
With the time you've spent on all this writing, you could have checked out the "constitutionality" squibs in the U.S. Code Annotated for the statute in question, 19 U.S.C. § 1305.

Did Jock Sturges have problems with customs?
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