Originally Posted by
flyingcrooked
Maybe this was implicit in @GVDM's number 8, but I was surprised to discover that my FTC can supposedly only be used for a *one way* overseas flight. The original booking was latitude, UK-Canada-UK, I flew the outbound, and then a couple of days before the inbound I converted it to a FTC because the flight date was Sept 18 (the strike). Now the agent tells me the only possible way I can use the credit is to fly one-way from Canada to Europe. I can't use it on a Canada-Europe-Canada booking.
This of course represents a huge loss in value given the cost of one-way flights compared to returns.
I think Europe-only was an agent oversimplification (though it does depend on the specific rules involved). For a partially flown ticket, think of this as similar to you making a voluntary change without the cancel step in between.
It will be repriced from the point of origin. If you book A-B-C-D, fly A-B and cancel C-D, and then later add E-F, then it will have to be priced A-B-E-F. It's just easier for agents to say it has to be something basically the same as before, as that will likely price. I'd expect Canada-Africa to also price in your case for instance.
I finally used up a leftover one of these recently. Because of the rules for what I had already flown, I was only allowed to use the remaining (not-small) value of the 014 ticket on USA domestic UA flights... so I flew lots of them. In the end it looked nothing like the original booking, but it would have been nice to be able to use it to fly AC.
Side note: I find it hard to believe that AC imposes a 1 year from date of original issue restriction for partially used tickets as implied in this thread, especially when they don't impose it on TAs. It should be 1 year from the first flight (i.e. ticket validity as mentioned in post #3, which depends on whether it is unused or partially used).