Originally Posted by
Kacee
Because "Marriott" doesn't run the guest's card or take the guest's payment. The hotel with which the guest has booked does those things. Marriott gets paid by the property later on the back end. Pretty basic stuff.
While I haven't worked for Marriott in a while and based upon what Hilton does right now, I think you've got it backwards. There are properties that require a deposit of either the first night's room and tax or the entire stay at the time of the reservation. That is done manually on property at some point in time whether it's that day, the next day, the next week or maybe day of arrival. It depends on how on top of things they are and there is no standard for that.
There are also non-refundable advance purchase rates. In that case the parent company is charging your card and the property gets paid by the parent company at some point in time in the future. The property has to carry that balance after checkout on their A/R aging as a receivable (unless it was booked far enough in advance that they get paid prior to the stay) the same as any other company that they have a direct bill with until the parent company pays via a direct deposit. Up until the not too distant past, it was still paper checks and then it could go well over a month until you would get paid.
The parent company doesn't get paid on the back end for any specific reservation type. In hotel accounting, at the end of every month, the parent company gets a set percentage of every reservation and they also get a franchisee fee/royalty percentage based on gross sales revenue and if applicable gross F&B revenue, etc.
I know that I'm over generalizing and it's been a bit since I was an Asst. Controller with Marriott, but I can't remember a scenario where the property paid the parent company the way how I think you're suggesting and I can tell you for a fact that it certainly doesn't work that way with Hilton now.