Originally Posted by
irishguy28
If it's an involuntary reroute, and they come with a proposal for rerouting you - why would there be a fare difference? Normally they would either provide you with an option, or try to get you to accept a refund. I can't imagine any scenario in which they come to you saying: we've cancelled your trip, and you have to pay more now if you want to travel.
Yes, that makes sense. Especially if you're traveling on a simple journey, e.g. AMS-CDG. If one got cancelled you will get moved to the next best option.
Originally Posted by
irishguy28
Unless you are trying to leverage the cancellation (because under what other circumstances would there be any question of an involuntary rerouting) to book something notably different - i.e. on a completely different day, or to a different destination/from a different origin - then the airline should reroute you without penalty.
I can't see why any fare difference would be charged, unless you start introducing your own additional constraints, i.e. you reject their proposal(s) and ask for something that you consider "better".
It's interesting you bring this up, because this is where I believe it can get a bit more 'grey area', especially with more complex routing.
Let's say you have a (hypothetical) routing to fly DUS-AMS-YVR-HNL through AFKL & partners on 1/10/2022 (not a last minute change). Due to some schedule changes, this route is no longer viable on this day (e.g. the AMS layover is too short now). What is the customer services' rep freedom to help you out within the involuntary reroute policies if you mention you cannot make the DUS-AMS but prefer to depart from BCN instead (again, examples, not actual routes)? This could be because a variety of reasons / changing plans
I have an experience where this was done without questioning, which I think is top notch service - but from what I read in this thread, the consensus is that these kind of questions are considered 'additional' or 'extra' and therefor trigger fare difference payments. In my case, fare difference would've definitely be there, it wasn't a full fare ticket and the new origin is usually priced higher than the original one.
Hence I'm curious to understand where the limit is here, if there's any at all?