Originally Posted by
JAXBA
I'll assign generic airline codes to make it easier to try and work out. You had one ticket for MAD-EZE-GRU-MAD on, let's say XX and YY. XX rerouted you MADGRU and YY saw you as a noshow for EZEGRU and so YY cancelled your XX GRUMAD? If it was one ticket (presumably issued by XX), then YY shouldn't have touched your GRUMAD, nor had any control over it, especially if you'd already checked in. Was GRUMAD originally sold as XX but operated by YY? Then a 'noshow' might have possibly fed through, but not likely.
This really doesn't make sense unless it was issued, or exchanged by YY.
Can you clarify while still keeping personal details vague? If you can, specifying the airlines (so we know what systems they're in/what relationship they have) would help us.
The booking was made through an OTA. Everything was on one ticket. YY customer services said they would not touch the ticket when I showed them my boarding pass.
As far as I could see all elements were operated and marketed by the same airlines. i.e. XX had XX codes, and YY had YY codes.
It said at the top of the page on the screen for XX at the XX boarding gate that YY had cancelled the ticket.