Originally Posted by
MSPeconomist
If one of the sons (presumably the 19 y.o.) had a credit card in his own name with sufficient available credit, shouldn't the GA have simply taken the card and charged the tickets to one of the traveler's card rather than to the mother's card. Isn't that what happened the next day. [OTOH I think someone said that mother paid for the hotel night, so maybe there wasn't an available credit card with the kids.]
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Would that not be a silly thing to do. The ticket has already been paid for. Why would both the motor and son have to pay twice for the ticket.
Correct me if I am wrong, but I don't think we are talking about a situation where the card was rejected by the bank. We are talking about a valid posted credit card transaction and AC is worried that in the future it may be disputed.
Not certain about anyone else, but i am not use to paying for things twice "in case" the first transaction is rejected sometime in the future.