Originally Posted by
Confus
If a customer is on a BA Holiday then it could indeed be considered reasonable to stay in the same hotel. But in that case, the BA Hols Duty desk would be making arrangements behind the scenes anyway. But otherwise, it really depends what is reasonable. And this ultimately might have to be tested by a court. Would a €2500 a night suite at the Ritz be reasonable when there’s plenty of other hotels in Paris? Almost certainly not. But would a Sofitel be acceptable over a Formule1? Probably. The problem is that it’s so subjective. Ultimately the OP needs to consider whether he’d be ok paying from his own money. If not, then it’s not fair to ask BA to pay the same.
Also the OP is seeking to stay at the same hotel which is most likely not in Malé but another city so a hotel in an island accessible by sea-plane or boat might not also be covered due to this actual reason.
For example, when BA cancelled a LYS/GVA-LHR flight, you could not say that you want to stay at a ski-resort and get the transportation costs ( no viable public transportation so private transfer -> in the MLE case sea-plane ). Same for an AGP-LHR flight, you can't stay at a Marbella beach resort when there are decent hotels in Malaga even though it's under GBP200 per night.