Originally Posted by
Confus
On what grounds? What is the law that says governments must facilitate overseas travel? To my knowledge there isn’t even one that says they must vaccinate their populations. It’s the epitome of ‘compensation culture’ that this question is even raised at all.
That they administered the vaccine improperly (not in accordance with the manufacturer's guidelines.) Personally I'd prefer to trust Pfizer's findings on the time-related efficacy of their vaccine versus a government desperate to roll them out at any cost.
I expect such a case would have little credence, though, particularly given the far greater policy failures Johnson's government have executed over the past year and the likelihood that they'll be dragged over the coals for those instead once this all dies down.