Originally Posted by
pinniped
My only question on the Oxford one is *why* the data looks that way. Why is a half-dose better than a full-dose? It just seems weird to those of us who don't work in a medical field.
I don't think anyone knows for sure at this point. Apparently, it surprised them, too. Yeah - it sure seems counter-intuitive. Like the homeopathic patient who forgot to take his medicine and died from an overdose.
