What legal precedence is there to state that damages are not at the listed price for theft or breach of contract? If someone walks off with a TV, the suit or charge is for the list price of the TV, not the cost of production prior to margin.If you stop paying me at my negotiated rate, I sue you for that rate, not my actual salary.

Same way, OP flew A to B and skipped C. Instead of paying x, they paid x-100. That's quantifiable.Then you can layer on the fact that AA may not have sold B-C as the inventory is was tied up by the OP. So theoretically, if you wan't to get academic about it, the potential damages are more than 100 (although that would be a challenge to prove as prices between the time the OP purchased and when someone may have bought B-C fluctuate, as well as B-C may never have been purchased).

So, how would you say AA didn't lose out on 100 in revenue?