Originally Posted by Ldnn1

But why would BA have any interest in doing this? When you pay in euros, *BA receives the money in euros*. What you are charged in GBP makes no difference to them.

Now you could argue that BA might want to receive euros on a date when it’s cheap to convert them back to GBP, but if they wanted to convert back to GBP (which I don’t think they do anyway - they probably keep euros in euros) then they could do that a later date regardless of when they received the funds.

[Edit: just seen golfmad’s note about it being Visa rather than BA. Would be helpful to understand what the gain would be to Visa here.].