Originally Posted by
Calchas
... the difference, if any, between the fare paid and the applicable fare for travel between the points for which the ticket has been used
No suggestion that the passenger can somehow be liable to pay for not using a flight coupon, i.e., that an open flight coupon could have a negative monetary value.
But isn't that exactly what this says? Not that unused coupons have a negative flight value, but that you calculate what the fare would have been for the flight coupons used. Even looking at the cheapest possible fare, it's still going to be more than an xONEx fare.
Originally Posted by
Calchas
Several carriers no longer allow their fares to be used end-on-end in an unrestricted way.
I don't understand, -- would you explain a bit, please?