Originally Posted by
Dr. HFH
Maybe. If your ticket still ends in the continent of origin, you have satisfied the rules for eligibility for the fare, and there should be no penalty. However, if your last flight is intercontinental, it's possible that you did not fulfill the fare's requirements, and, based on what you actually flew, may have been ineligible for the fare to start with. In that case, it seems to me that since you're not eligible for the xONEx fare, what's the alternative?
This is a refund after departure.
VOLUNTARY REFUNDS
Voluntary refunds will be computed as follows:
[..]
3.1.2 if a portion of a ticket has been used, refund will be made in an amount equal to the difference, if any, between the fare paid and the applicable fare for travel between the points for which the ticket has been used, less any applicable service charge and communication expenses.
(Resolution 737)
No suggestion that the passenger can somehow be liable to pay for not using a flight coupon, i.e., that an open flight coupon could have a negative monetary value.
(It's also not clear to me that a sum of one way fares will always be a valid way of calculating a cost of an itinerary. Several carriers no longer allow their fares to be used end-on-end in an unrestricted way.)