Originally Posted by
jsloan
What? Why? If J is oversold, and they're willing to oversell by two more -- why on earth wouldn't they be willing to sell those same seats as F fares instead? I mean, F2J2 I could see; F0J2 makes no sense to me as a J oversale situation.
it makes perfect sense actually and I have been in these situations before. If they have 2 more seats they can certainly decide it is much more likely someone is buying the last full fare J than someone buying F. J is 2 over and there are 4 F left ... rev mgt will decide how to sell that.