Originally Posted by
Globaliser
For those using UK credit cards, I wonder whether the credit card company has to pay because of its CCA obligations?
If the airline doesn't provide the service purchased, then you can have the transaction voided (original amount returned) in most or all countries provided that you haven't paid for the ticket yet. For example, you haven't paid yet if you paid by credit card and haven't paid your credit card bill yet. The banks take a hit unless they have some collateral for this.
I wonder if customers who booked a return trip with the outbound leg taking place before the bankruptcy can refuse to pay for the outbound leg, stating that the price of the outbound is less than the cost of the 261/2004 obligations of the return.