Hi everyone,

I have some questions that have been driving me up the wall lately, in that I’m not sure I properly understand duty free allowances.

A hypothetical example would be this:
- I’m from New Zealand and I fly to Korea for a 3 week holiday.
- Personal belongings I would bring would include: an iPhone, laptop, wristwatch, camera, wedding ring and of course my clothes! Which I intend to return to New Zealand with.
- The Korean arrival card asks “are you carrying any goods acquired overseas....that exceed duty free allowance”
- I turn the card around and see that the duty free allowance for “goods for personal use” is “less than $400 usd”

Now I assume I would have to tick that box because everything I’m bringing with me comes from overseas!
Seeing as that allowance is so low, even though I’m only carrying the basics would I then be charged duty for my own belongings including the shoes on my feet? Surely that can’t be correct can it?

I used Korea as an example because their info seems pretty clear cut with no exceptions listed. And it seems the allowances for general goods is similarly low in all other countries.

I’ve been reading and getting the impression that what they actually mean in most of these cases is that they’re asking about items that will end up staying in that country (e.g as a gift or being sold). But that seems implied and is not otherwise explicitly stated

When looking online elsewhere I tend to see that the instructions refer to people who are returning to their home country from a holiday which I can completely understand. But I’m just struggling with how customs work for countries that one visits while on holiday.

Seeing as travelling with a smartphone, laptop and wedding ring is not unusual at all, wouldn’t 99% of people travelling overseas have to be declaring their belongings at customs and paying a duty on them? I’m sure I’m wrong but having trouble proving it to myself.

If someone much smarter than I am could please explain this to me I’d be very grateful.