Originally Posted by
j2simpso
What if the disclosure of the reason would violate an NDA he has signed with an employer or government regulation (i.e. PIPEDA)?
A judge can set aside any sort of agreement if he or she sees fit (e.g. NDA) - whether or not a judge does that though is based on various factors and the outcome is anyone's guess. I'm unsure about PIPEDA though and what you are trying to get at.