Originally Posted by
platoon
yes that is true for multi destination where you have to re check bags, if there is no rechecking bags what are they going to do not charge in Serbia and then charge wherever else at the gate? no.
That's wrong.
The FMC rule (and the MSC rule)
only applies to interline tickets, as the issue of "which of several conflicting baggage allowances applies?"
only arises on such tickets.
Originally Posted by
platoon
If all flights are on a single ticket. if the first flight has a allowance of 2 and the final destination is the usa irregardless of connections and policies to the connections o. connecting flights. Serbias market takes effect. I'm sorry but you are blatantly ignoring this.
And again, you are wrong. I realise you claim you spoke to a JU agent who said you would get 2*23kg even when not travelling to JFK with JU, but that is not what the FMC rule says, and it's not what the MSC rule says, and it doesn't mean that you were misinformed or that the agent misunderstood or just was mitaken. The first ticket on a BEG-LHR(JU)-YYZ(AC)-CMH(AC) only has a 1*23kg allowance. Yes, I know JU has an allowance of 2*23kg for BEG-JFK and for many other connecting itineraries; but, observing the FMC rule, you must look at the allowance that JU would attribute to just BEG-LHR - which is only 1*23kg.
Stated again,
there is no individual flight appearing on the ticket that would qualify for a 2*23kg allowance. BEG-LHR, although it "connects" to other flights, is still just BEG-LHR, and the marketing carrier of this flight will only grant a 1*23kg allowance for this first flight. This allowance is therefore carried over to all subsequent flights (though, in this case, there was never any question about baggage allowance, because each individual sector on BEG-LHR-YYZ-CMH only gets 1*23kg).
Yes, I know that the Air Serbia website says that for tickets between The US and Belgrade the allowance is 2*23kg. But remember - AA has a baggage allowance for US to Japan that is more than 0kg, and yet, in the example illustrated above, this was ignored and instead only the allowance of the first sector (0kg) was granted.
You must therefore explain why, in the present case, the "FMC" would lead to the provision of an allowance greater than that accruing to ANY of the individual sectors. (Again, the say-so of a JU employee who may not be aware of the rules or ever have actually considered this scenario, is far less convincing than the worked examples of the rules as shown inthat linked page)