Originally Posted by
Cymro
If a walk-up WTP fare would have been £900 each way (£1,800 return) then a fare difference offer would not be appropriate; clearly if, somehow, a walk-up fare for the cabin you travelled in was £1,025 or less (or £725 if carrier charges are taken into account) then a fare difference offer might exceed the statutory compensation but that's unlikely.
But what I am asking is - why is BA allowed to calculate the WTP fare at the walk up price? , should it not be at the WTP price at the time of booking your CW ticket. Obviously If they know they have oversold, BA will raise the price of WTP walk up price so they do not have to pay out so much to the person downgraded.
I pay for my own flights so naturally I look for the cheapest CW price I can find. If I could not afford it and had to travel at that date I would but WTP at the cheapest rate. There is a big difference in price between WTP non flex and CW non flex at time of purchase, but BA on the day of the flight are allowed to compare a flexible WTP fare against the non flex CW that I would have bought so it is favourable to them.