Having just reread the BA fare rules, someone tell me if I've got this right. Let's say I find round-trip tickets LHR-PHL priced at £500 on AA *and* BA. As I read it, if we assume that, say, £200 of the fare is government taxes (just for simplicity), then with the £ at $1.25 AA you'd expect EQDs to come out at 375, BUT in the 2nd to lowest BA class they calculate EQDs as 10% of distance flown, which comes out to roughly 700 EQD (7000 miles flown).

That being the case, it would be advantageous for me to fly BA rather than AA. Is this really what they want?

wg