Originally Posted by
ringingup
I'm not an expert but this seems unfair to me. I basically paid for a flight to STR, which I obviously wouldn't have taken on its own.
Can I ask BA for a full refund or is what they've done correct?
Did you specifically ask for EC261 reimbursement? This case seems to me to be on the frontier between the conventional refund of unused sectors, which isn't EC261 specific, and the Regulation's scope. Imagine someone who actually wanted to go to Stuttgart, perhaps they had a few days there or a business meeting, then BA's stance seems correct and fair to me. You say it's obvious, but it wasn't obvious to me, hence the importance in asking for EC261 reimbursement. However yes, if there was no other reason for you to go to STR then you can claim for full reimbursement under Article 8.1.a