Originally Posted by
Calchas
If that were very clearly stated at time of purchase, and those one-way prices were available to the purchaser, perhaps. It's the open ended and opaque nature of airline pricing that seems to me to make this look very slippery, especially if these tickets are sold to consumers.
On a separate point, many one way fares do not allow themselves to be used for historical repricing of flown sectors. Many of BA's fares now include the condition that "FARES ONLY APPLY IF PURCHASED BEFORE DEPARTURE." After the sector is flown you essentially have an empty tariff with no price for that leg.
Yes, but these are theoretical fares and purchases. The passenger doesn't actually buy them; they're used only for calculation. Doesn't matter if they were actually available at the moment that the passenger paid for the RTW ticket. Sort of like HIP calculation, no?
Originally Posted by
wandering_fred
The other take could be - if the sum of the one way fares exceed the value of the originally purchased xONEx - then the ticket can not be cancelled/refunded and no money is refunded/asked for from the customer.
Well, sure, if the airline feels like letting the pax off the hook. So, for example, if you only need a one-way ticket (
e.g., meeting a cruise ship) and the xONEx fare is cheaper, why not buy the xONEx fare and just not fly the rest of the itinerary after the city where you board the cruise? No penalty and no exposure under your scenario.