Originally Posted by
rove312
So if I read the bolded part correctly, if I have a statement balance in purchases of $500 each month, if I pay that in full as usual is no interest accumulating on that: the next month would be that month's $500 in purchases with no interest accumulating from the presence of $1000 balance transfer?
Yes. It is because of the Credit CARD Act, that an issuer must allocate the payment to the balance with the highest APR. So when you use your card with a BT balance, your payment will offset the balance subject to the penalty APR first (if any). Then cash advance (if any). Then purchase (if any). And BT or promotional purchase will be the last to credit.
Originally Posted by
rove312
For some possible weasel room, would "your entire balance" mean as of the last due date, or could they say something like my purchase balance was $500 at the statement close mid-month, but I had another $300 in purchases by the time I paid on my payday at the end of the month, so I had to pay $800 to avoid interest?
It is based on your statement balance.