Originally Posted by Boddingtons

So based on recent posts is it correct to assume that it is not possible to claim for a breakfast inclusive rate unless either

a) there is no room only rate available

or

b) the breakfast inclusive rate is lower than the room only rate?

Or have they taken things to extremes to suggest that one must book the 'lowest available rate', literally, meaning it would not be possible to claim against anything other than whatever the cheapest room type is on any given day?

I wonder how they'll be interpretted next month!?